
A smart guy emailed me over the weekend with a very provocative assertion: All of this income inequality stuff is over-blown political rhetoric.
He makes a compelling case. Instead of paraphrasing it, I am going to let the smart guy speak for himself:
It seems to me the whole premise of the Obama/Hill Dem position is that a dramatic income inequality trend has ensued.
They are wagering all the chips of the election on that premise and their preferred policy.
What if the premise is wrong?
What if shares of income have been relatively constant or have not changed dramatically from 1979-2006?
What if taking the edges off of market forces, which their policies, by definition, must do, actually reduces the economic pie that Americans basically share pretty constantly (as they move between cohorts over their lifetime)?
An income re-distribution policy carries the burden of dampening growth. That’s the trade-off between equity and efficiency that most policy makers agree exists.
What then?





















